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The only thing I'll point out, is that if the name of a nameserver is *in* the domain which is delegated to it, e.g. example.in delegated to ns1.example.in, then the registry needs to know *both* the name *and* the IP address, so that it can give out the appropriate glue records. Therefore, if your ISP is only asking for one of those things, either a) they are implicitly *forbidding* that the name of the nameserver be in the domain being delegated, or b) they are relying on other methods (which might include out-of-band methods such as email or phone calls) to translate the name to an IP address or _vice_versa_. - Kevin query wrote: > Hi All, > My organisation registered a domain name under the .in domain. > After that we found that new domian name was successfully registered > and it was hosted by the > ISP itself. > The issue here is that my organisation wants to host the domain name > themselves . For that there is some provision > in the ISP's website to change the name server record. > > But it is asking only for the hostname of the new name server . There I > can give either the hostname or ip > address of the new name server. > > I was just wondering if I provide only the ip address or hostname but not > both, then whether my domain name > will be resolved at the Internet. > What I understand is that by asking the ISP to change the name server > record to a new name server that will > be hosted by us, it will be like the ISP has delegated the authority of the > domain name to our organisation. > But for that , the ISP needs to add a glue record for our name server which > will consist of both name server and > its corresponding ip address. > But the ISP is asking for only one of them . > > So , please clarify my doubt that if I provide either the hostname or ip > address , will my domain name will be resolved in internet. > > > regards > > > > > >
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